Intrastat: Intercompany direct delivery

[Former Member]

Hi all,

I currently have a scenario where we have created an intercompany direct delivery flow. The flow is as follows:

1. A sales order is created in Sales Org B, for customer in Sales Org. B. (country B)

2. Plant in the sales order is from Sales Org. A. (country A)

3. A delivery is created in Sales Org. B, but from plant of Sales Org. A, and is sent directly to the customer in Sales Org. B.

4. A commercial invoice is generated in Sales Org. B, to customer B.

5. An Intercompany invoice is generated in Sales Org. A, to customer of Sales Org. B.

6. (Master Data for IC was previously created: customer for plant and Sales orgs A and B)

I have two doubts:

a) In order to close the financial flow, as per OSS Note 31126, we can do the automatic posting. If this steps are not implemented, I guess a manual posting will have to be done in FI against that Intercompany Sales Org A, in Sales Org B?

b) The main doubt I have is regarding INTRASTAT. As we have only1 delivery (1 Goods Issue) and no receptions in this flow: can anyone help me to understand how INTRASTAT will be considered for Sales Org. B?  (for Sales Org. A is clear, as we are issuing stock from Plant in Sales Org A, to country in Sales Org B)

Thanks in advance.

Rgds

J

[JL23 · Accepted solution]

Look at the selection screen of VE99

As you can see (or as you cannot see), there is no sales org, the Intrastat report is at company/plant level.

The sending plant is known from the sales order item, the country  of the plant from T001w table.

The receiving country is known from the address of the ship-to party.

If those two countries are different from each other and both belong to the EU, then it is considered for Intrastat.

[Former Member · Accepted solution]

Thanks for your reply Jürgen.

The intrastat to be declared by country A for the dispatch from country A to country B is considered, and I can find it. However, my doubt is in the intrastat to be declared by country B, for the receiving goods from country A to B.

Thanks again.

J

[JL23 · Accepted solution]

This is inbound Intrastat and actually belongs to MM,

This Intrastat has usually be done by the receiving party, your customer (ship-to) .

If they use SAP, then they create a PO to their local vendor (which is your sales org B) and get told that the goods will be shipped from country A. Hence they add a partner role GS goods supplier in their PO and then the country of dispatch is taken from the  Goods supplier instead of the vendor.

[Former Member · Accepted solution]

Yes, the thing is that the customer is the same company (the process explained is Intercompany Direct Delivery). So as both companies belong to the same group of companies (all companies are in SAP), they will act as:

1. Seller company (Company of country A).

2. Receiving company (Company of country B).

As the IC direct delivery flow is a standar flow in SAP that's why I was asking how the receiving company (virtual reception of goods, as the goods are shipped directly to the customer of its sales organization) has to declare the INTRASTAT (MM movement, that's right)

Thanks again.

J

[JL23 · Accepted solution]

Let me try to understand what you understand under Intercompany direct delivery.

I understand  what I described above, you create an order to an external customer and ship the goods from another plant that belongs to another company code directly to the customer.

If the receiver is not an external customer customer, then you should just do Intercompany stock transfer.

The financial flow of money does not play a role in Intrastat reporting which is just about the goods movements.

Those triangular business are explained in the Intrastat manual here an example from Belgium: http://www.nbb.be/doc/DQ/e_pdf_ex/basis2014EN.pdf

Such manuals are available for all countries.

Virtual goods receipts are not known as standard SAP process.

[Former Member · Accepted solution]

Hi Jürgen,

what I understand for 'Intercompany Direct delivery' is what you explained above: you create an order to an external customer and ship the goods from another plant that belongs to another company code directly to the customer.

The goods receiver is the external customer. So my doubt is: although the goods are moved from Country A to B, from a dispatching point of view, from a receiving point of view they also need to be declared. Do you mean that is the obligation of the external customer to declare it, and the Company from country B has no need to declare these goods (who has never physically owned them).

Thx

J

[JL23 · Accepted solution]

exact, it is your customer who has to do the declaration.

If you don't want to let him know the origin country, or take the declaration as a service to him,    then you have agree that you are doing the Intrastat. But then you have the dilemma that you you dont have any reference to create the inbound intrastat, which either means direct maintenance in VEFU transaction, or creating the inbound records via the user exits automatically when you run Intrastat for outbound at the shipping plant.

[Former Member · Accepted solution]

Thx Jürgen, it is clear now. I appreciate your help.

I guess we will probably have to use VEFU transaction for it.

Rgds

J