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True or False? It's absolutely necessary to load current year asset transactions if mid-year takeover

(I am asking this because my client previously received a lot of information, and as such they always ask me "Did you check on-line?")

The client is going live mid-year. They somehow were given the impression that they would not have to load P1 through P6 transactions.

My position is that the SAP documentation is clear on this: the transactions must be loaded, with the client having a choice of loading them as legacy data (with no automatic FI posting) or transactionally (with FI posting). Either way, they must load.

Am I correct?

Thanks.

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3 Answers

  • Best Answer
    Posted on Nov 30, 2012 at 05:45 PM

    Dear David,

    It is perfecty possible migrate in mid-year for both processes but there are differences from end-year migration. Please look at following considerations and let me know what you think.

    Basicaly you will divide migration in 2 parts:

    1 - Assets from previous year.

    2 - Currenctly year Assets.

    1 - Assets from previous year.

    Check below picture and fields discription:

    Cum.acquis.val. for acquisition assets amount entering

    Accm.ord.deprec for depreciation already posted up to now. All times cumulative depreciation (previous year until go live). It calculates net amount: Cum.acquis.val - Accm.ord.deprec

    Ord.dep.posted is current year depreciation posted. E.G.: January 1st until go live. It will calculate current year depreciation to be done.

    2 - Currenctly year Assets.

    Only Ord.dep.posted will be entered here to calculate depreciation values for current year

    The Cum.acquis.val. and Accm.ord.deprec will be entered in transaction option

    Moviment type 100.

    Regards


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    z03.png (11.2 kB)
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    • Former Member Marssel Vilaça

      Thanks again Marssel.

      I'm replying to your last message for the benefit of anyone who may read this looking for information.

      Either you do not understand me or I do not understand you. For the point I am trying to make, I am correct. Verified in system.

      The key is that in my example I've posted additional acquisition cost, in the current fiscal year, to an asset that was capitalized in a prior fiscal year.

      If there are no acquisition postings, the system can accurately calculate the entire current year based solely on start-of-year NBV and Dep Posted current year amount.

      As soon as there are postings within the current year, the system has to know the asset value dates of those postings in order to accurately calculate an amount. If we assume the APC on the asset at the start of the year is 50000, w 5000 debit in Jan and 500 debit in June, depreciation for the year would be 5 months depreciation on APC of 55000 plus 7 months depreciation on APC of 555000. If 500 debit in Jan and 5000 in June, it would be 5 months depreciation on 50500 plus 7 months depreciation on 55000. The variables that are unknown to the system, in the absence of entering the current year transactions at their correct asset value dates, is the number of periods in the current year, in the legacy system, for which APC was between 50000 and 55500, and what the value was during that period (50000 or 55500).

      As I state above; If you don't agree with what I'm saying there is a communication gap between what I mean and what you think I mean. This post is simply to set the record straight for future seekers of information who may happen upon this thread. Thank you for taking the time to respond. I gave you points.

  • Posted on Dec 02, 2012 at 06:16 PM

    Yes, they should be loaded using either approach.

    I've thought about this and any other possible solution would either not tie to the legacy system (which may, or may not be a concern or goal), or not be financially accurate.

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  • author's profile photo Former Member
    Former Member
    Posted on Dec 12, 2012 at 02:48 AM

    This message was moderated.

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