0

# Indirect valuation of IT 15 WT with IT 15 base WT's (GB Payroll)

Dec 28, 2016 at 08:14 AM

96

Former Member

Hi ,

I need to create a new wage type(XXXX) in infotype 15 ,This wage type should be indirectly valuated (8%) based on other infotype 15 wagetypes .

for example - wage type 1 is 100 , wage type 2 is 200 wage type 3 is 300 then XXXX should be (100+200+300*8%)i:e 8%of 600 = 48

Hence, wage type XXXX should be valuated as 48.

I tried using PRZNT variant B but it works only with infotype 8 wagetypes .

Can anyone suggest me how this can be achieved . Is it possible to indirectly valuate IT 15 wage type based on percentage of other IT 15 Wt's?

Thanks

GS

antoine foucault Dec 28, 2016 at 02:29 PM
0

Hi Gauri:

For this scenario there is no standard indirect valuation method that would enable you to achieve what you want.

A possible solution would be to compute this value in a custom PCR after function P0015 during payroll evaluation. Drawback is you can't see the result with PA30/PA20 but only in the payroll result.

You could record wagetype 4 with 8% and within the PCR sum wagetype 1, 2 and 3 and then do the % calculation and keep the result in WT4 amount field.You don't even need to assign 8% to WT4 in IT0015 and handle this in the PCR (but to record IT15 you need to give either a amount or number).

Best,

Antoine

Show 12 Share
Former Member

Hi Antoine ,

I will now try to achieve this through custom PCR and share the outcome .

Thank you

Regards ,

Gauri

Former Member

Hi Antoine ,

I could set this up by setting a custom PCR .

Have assigned wage types to a new cumulation class /195

set up a constant defining the percentage

set up a new rule , wherein based on /195 , 8% is calculated and stored in a new wage typeXXXX

Placed the rule in the schema

Result are as expected .

ISSUE - All calculations are fine except the retro calculation . If I make any retro entry then payroll is just calculating the percentage on the current month's amount (/195) and not taking the retro amount into consideration.

Could you please suggest ?

Regards

Gauri

Former Member

Hi Gauri:

Excellent job!

As for your second issue, could you post a few screenshots of your scheme and where your rule is being processed in your scheme so I can get a sense of how it work? Is it possible that your rule is placed somewhere within your scheme that is only being processed during non-retro period?

I must say I am kind of puzzled you decided to go for WT /195.

Best,

Antoine

Former Member
antoine foucault

Basically the requirement was such wherein if employee has any wage types out of 60 listed wage types then new wage type should calculate 8% on the total of those wage types .

I have created a new cumulation class 95 and added all those listed wage types to it . Upon payroll run 8% is calculated based on /195. This percentage value is stored in new wage type XXXX. furthermore , report can be extracted via wage type reporter.

Adding up retro entry is little tricky, trying to fix this .

Thanks

Regards

Gauri

Former Member

One solution is to use Extrants/Intrants to transfer the retroactive variation of WT /195(if it is available for your Country).

Create WTs /X95 and /Z95 (for Models, look at /X71 and /Z71 if they exist for your Country (GB), or at other Intrant/Extrant WTs).

In table view V_512W_B, create Valuation Bases for WT /195.

In your Retroactive Calculation sub-schema (ours is a Custom version of KDBS), create PCRs to process WTs /195 and /Z95 and to generate the Initrants (WT /X95).

Add a pcr to be processed only in the current pay and that will calculate the 8% on WT /X95 (the variation of /195 comming from the retroactive calculation).

v-512w-b.png (208.6 kB)
Rémi Corriveau

Not a bad approach, but that would failed if that 8% change over time.

Instead of using cumulation to WT /195 and move amount across period, I would rather add a new processing class (let say 99) in T512W with value 1 "add wagetype to XXXX" and value space or 0 "do nothing".... and also I would set all the relevant wagetypes that must count toward the basis with value 1.

Within my equivalent of subschema XAP9 Import additional payments/deductions I would add a new rule PIT ZZZZ P99 NOAB that would create a new wage type XXXX in IT table and cumulate all amout from the relevant wagetype coming from P0015. Finally I would process that XXXX WT with T511K constant of 8%.

Best,

Antoine

antoine foucault

Hello Antoine,

To reply to your comment, we have been using that approach since our initial Go-Live back in 2001, for Pension Earnings, Union Dues Earnings, and Deferred Leave Earnings, but not for Payments.

For the one Pension Plan where retroactive changes must be calculated at the original rate (%), we use the same process but the variation in the appropriate Cumulation WT generates a special deduction WT in the recalculated pay, and that change is carried forward to the current pay through DDNTK and ARRRS, while the Input in the current pay does not generate any new contributions.

But when I think of the problem again and since the Cumulation WT is used to generate a Payment (and not a Deduction), I believe that it should be possible to create some PCRs in the Retroactive Calculation sub-schema to calculate the Payment on the Cumulation WT variation (positive or negative). Cross-Year changes would be handled through standard Gross Earnings Output/Input.

There are only 10 Customer Processing Classes (and 10 Customer Cumulators) so we usually try to find a solution that does not involve using one of them, when possible.

Rémi Corriveau

Hi Remi:

Thank you for sharing back... ; it's always very interesting to see and understand different approach.

Best,

Antoine

antoine foucault

Yes Antoine, there are usually more than one way to do things in SAP, and I also appreciate to hear of other ways to do things.

Former Member

Hello - Thanks a lot Antoine and Remi for your response .

I am not able to see the calculated wage type on payslip as a component however ; new wage type XXXX is not getting added in payments .

I flagged the wage type XXXX against /101 (total gross) and /105 (working net pay) , still it is not adding up in payments .

Any suggestions ?

Thanks

Regards

GS

Former Member

Hi Gauri:

Does your XXXX wagetype is being created after processing "processing class 20"? Can you post screen shot of how you are handling it in the end? It's possible given the way you build it you need to manually add it to /1* secondary wage types.

Best,

Antoine

Former Member

Since the PaySlip (Remuneration Statement) is a Report, you should first look if WT XXXX exists in the employee's Payroll Results RT table (through t-code PC_PAYRESULT).