Authorization BW IP

[Former Member]

Hello Gurus,

We have the following scenario and would like to hear your comments:

1- User has access for company code 01 and also access to execute Planning Function , Planning Sequence related to this company code. (S_RS_AUTH - Object created for company code 01).

2 - User now needs access to run a Planning Sequence through portal for Company code 02 (But he can´t see any records for this company code 02, he can see only for company code 01). It is a process that will save records from company 02 into 01.

I try to create another object and assign to S_RS_AUTH, with just option 02 (Modify) and 0comp_code (02) and did not work, because he can also see the records for 02.

Points: User has access to run Planning Sequence and Planning Funcion with (*)

Let me know your comments.

Thanks

RDP

[former_member186696 · Accepted solution]

Dear Ricardo,

If user has the rights to modify he/she can also read the data. I don't know how can you solve it but, modify is the best option in this case.

Best regards,

Edward John

[Former Member]

Hello Guys , thanks you all.

We did a work around and it worked. We create a sequence that call an ABAP class and change in this class the user during the execution and this class also call the sequence that I want to execute with another company code. With that the user can only execute the sequence and can't see the records from other comp code.

Edited by: ricardodupe on May 12, 2011 1:14 AM

Edited by: ricardodupe on May 12, 2011 1:14 AM

[Former Member]

Solved.

[former_member422651]

Hi ricardodupe,

We have a similar scenario, can you please provided us a code snapshot of you solution?

Thanks in advance.

Rui Andrade

[Former Member]

Hello Rui , pls send me your e-mail.

Thanks

[former_member422651]

Hi ricardodupe,

please use email account on my profile.

Many thanks.

Rui Andrade

[former_member93896]

Hello RDP,

what you want is not possible. Actually, it does not make too much sense to me anyway.

The user should be able to read company code 02 (using a function). Why must he NOT be able to see that data? What if he runs a simple copy from 02 to 01 and views the data in 01? He would be able to see what was in 02 anyway.

What's the real security reason why the user is not allowed to see the 02 data (but still use it in functions)?

Regards,

Marc

SAP Techology RIG

[Former Member]

Thanks for you reply , but it did not work just with the modify option , because once you execute the Planning Sequence the records needs to be read and modified.