Hello Friends
I am bit confused with the determination of VAT number in the billing header. I have checked the F1 help but still bit confused.
The F1 help explains as below
Where the setting is BLANK, the following standard priority rules apply:
a) If PY has a VAT ID no. and PY <> SP, then tax number and tax classification are taken from PY (SH is no longer relevant in this case). The tax number is taken according to the 'tax destination country'. --> In my case PY has a VAT ID and PY = SP
b) If a) does not apply:
If SH has a VAT reg. no. or if SP has NO VAT reg. no., then the tax number and tax classification are taken from SH. --> SH has a VAT number and SP has a VAT number (same as Payer since Payer and SP are same in this case)
c) If b) also does not apply:
Tax number and tax classification are copied from the sold-to party. The tax number is taken according to the country of the sold-to party.
Which VAT number would system consider? Will it be SH ? as it is contrary to the point a) [as it says if PY <> SP take from PY and SH is no longer relevant, but here PY = SP so will it be SH?
Or b) says SH has a VAT number or if SP has NO VAT number then take it from SH -->will this rule be ignored as in my case SH has a VAT number and SP has ALSO VAT number
Which VAT number will I get in the billing header? Any hints
Thank you