on 10-21-2008 1:48 PM
Hi Gurus,
Can anyone help me understand the concept of rolling year in Absence schemes.
I have a problem related to company sick pay for an employee.His entitlement for company's sick pay(OxP) seems to have used up long time ago.
But in the recent payroll run,the employee seems to be getting paid for 3 days(though he is on leave for 5 days).
Can anyone help me undstd the possible cause of this problem.
Appropiate reply shall be rewarded with points...
REgards,
Sushil
Hi Sushil,
Normally, the way the OxP schemes are set up is, as you said, on a rolling year basis. This means that the system looks back 1 year from the start of the absence and looks for used entitlements. Depending on the no. of days paid, the remaining entitlements are calculated.
In your case, the payment in the current period could be because he might have received 3 days of entitlements based on the absences he has taken in the last one year.
Hope this resolves your query. If you need more information on this, please let me know his entitlement and the start date of the current absence.
-Akshay
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Hi Akshay,
Thanks for the information on rolling year...
Further details about my problem are as follows:
We have an absence scheme(Occupational sick Pay) with following details:
Seniority Entitlement
0-11 months 52 Weeks OSP 0 %
01-09 Years -13 Entitlement Weeks OSP 100 %
01-09 Years -364 Weeks OSP 0%
10-19 Years -26 Entitlement Weeks OSP 100%
10-19 Years -52 Weeks OSP 0%
20-99 Years- 40 Entitlement Weeks OSP 100%
20-99 Years- 52 weeks OSP 0%
Scheme has been configured on a rolling year basis....
An employee is on sickness leave from 03.10.2007 till date.His
remaining entitlement as of 3.10.2007 is 23.8 Weeks(checked in IT 2001 -->Remaining Entitlement tab) and his entitlement gets over on
09.06.2008 and from 10.06.2008 he starts getting OSP 0 %,but from
05.10.2008 he again starts getting OSP 100%.
Could you please suggest the possible reason for this.
Is Vacation Carryover implemented in your enterprise?
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