on 06-04-2008 2:08 PM
Hi Experts,
I do have a doubt in processing a single vendor invoice through multiple banks. Please go through the below mentioned doubt and please give your expert opinion on the same.
There is only one invoice of Rs.1,00,000 outstanding in my vendor account. Now, I am having two banks and available balances and ranking are set as below in FBZP.
Bank Avaialble Amt Rank
HDFC 50,000 1
ICICI 50,000 2
Now, as I mentioned already, I had done all the necessary basic configuration in FBZP. Now, when I ran the APP, the system is not processing. It seems that the system is checking both the individual banks in order of preference, but since none of them have sufficient amount, it is refusing to process. Where as the normal process is, the system should take Rs.50,000 from HDFC and then it should go to the next bank that is ICICI and shoud take Rs50,000, but this is not happening. In a normal scenario, the entry will be as below:
Vendor A/c Dr.1,00,000
To HDFC Bank A/c Cr.50,000
To ICICI Bank A/c Cr.50,000
I hope, I have expressed my doubt now in a clear manner. Request you to please give your specific guidance/any configuration that needs to be done in FBZP.
Regards
Krs
Hi,
Actually I faced the interview with the said question and I replied the same answer and he is not convinced with my answer.
He all the way interview revolving on same point. Is there any alternative.
Regards,
Krs
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Hi Krishna,
You query is quite clear. But you also said that the normal process should be as under:
Vendor A/c Dr.1,00,000
To HDFC Bank A/c Cr.50,000
To ICICI Bank A/c Cr.50,000
Well, that is not the case. The payment program does not carry out amount splitting. If the amount on a bank account is not sufficient for a payment, the payment program selects another bank account. If it finds no bank account from which it can post the entire amount for a payment, it does not carry out the payment.
Ranking order and available amounts are independent settings in FBZP configuration (Bank Determination option). Ranking Order controls the order in which the payment program checks the house banks to determine whether payment can be made from a particular bank. Once it determines it can, then it goes to available amounts and checks whether the ENTIRE amount can be paid from that bank account. If not, it goes back to ranking order, picks up the next number and checks in available amounts again until it finds one account from where the entire amount can be paid. If it doesn't find any, it does not carry out the payment.
Assign pts. if this answers your query!
PS: You should ensure that these amounts are up-to-date before every payment run.
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Hi Krishna,
Amount Splitting among banks is not possible in APP.As a proof you can refer following link of SAP help.
http://help.sap.com/saphelp_47x200/helpdata/en/a9/5b37352752af34e10000009b38f889/frameset.htm.
Regards,
Neha Duseja
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Hi
I don't think payment program functions this way. The APP first checks whether the house bank it derives as per ranking order for that payment method (in your case I guess first is HDFC) and see whether sufficient funds are available. If not, it will look up second bank ICICI and see whether sufficient funds are available. It will not club the balances in both.
Jayaram
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