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can i rehire employee from CA to US

former_member1348745
Active Participant
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If employee was in CA and i want to rehire him with same pernr in US, will system allow to do so?

if yes how.

what is the best practice? shall i hire a new employee in US with ref to old pernr.

Regards,

Aman

Accepted Solutions (1)

Accepted Solutions (1)

former_member1348745
Active Participant
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Country Reassignment action is needed

Answers (3)

Answers (3)

Former Member
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Best practice is to configure a separate action for Country Re-assignment (or Country Transfer) - this action when configured with the "country reassignment" flag in configuration needs to be processed in 2 parts - termination action for sending country (current PERNR terminated) and hire action (new PERNR created in new MOLGA and linked to the old PERNR via Ref PERNR).

Make sure the 2 PERNRs are linked appropriately via Central Person object on the ORG side (if ORG management is implemented)

this takes care of proper year end tax issues as well since the 2 PERNRs are linked and the most current PERNR is treated as the "primary PERNR".

Former Member
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Don't you need to "terminate" them in one country (CA) and the do a whole new hire in the other (US) and there is a "Reference Personnel number" on IT000 or IT0001 (you enter the old number in here) and it links the two records....

Hope this helps.

Dianna

Former Member
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Hi Aman,

To hire him as a new employee and reference him to the old pernr ( for example with IT 0032 ) is a practice used in a lot of places (including big companies with offices around the world ). Even if someone is moved because of a reorganizational assignment ( as an expat ), a new pernr is created.

This also depends on how you are the settings of your organization configured, but if different countries mean different molgas ( as 99% of cases ), my opinion is to mantain the old pernr as reference and create a new one.

Hope it helps.

Former Member
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Andry,

I'm curious as to why would you recommend to change the perner due to different molga? Wouldn't a change of company code action, if set up properly, do the trick, while still allowing the same PERNR to be used without a Reference Personnel Number? (BTW, I think you mean IT 0031, right).

We will be facing the same issue soon when our system is global and I'm just wondering too.

Thank you!

Stephanie