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author's profile photo Former Member
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Former Member

Automatic payment question (F110)

Posted on Jan 18, 2008 at 09:25 AM 52 Views

Hi all,

I am trying to see where can I set, if it is settable, that when making an automatic payment the document that closes the vendors open item and is an open item on the outgoing bank sub-account to have the contents of its reference field the same as the document that is being closed/payed. I know that in case of more payments it might me a problem since the system doesn0t know which one to take, but in case of single payment, any ideas if it is possible?

Thanks

Dusko

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2 Answers

  • author's profile photo Former Member
    Former Member
    Posted on Jan 18, 2008 at 09:36 AM
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    Dear,

    Pls clarify whether your looking for clearing open item or to post an payment document. If not looking for block the payment.

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    • Former Member
      Jan 18, 2008 at 09:38 AM

      I am paying a vendor open item. I pay it and on vendor side it is closed but on the bank subaccount this payment is open until the banks statement arrives. But then this item is not automatically closed since the reference field from the document posted on vendor is not copied to reference field on this payment document.

  • author's profile photo Henri LOISEAU
    Henri LOISEAU
    Posted on Jan 18, 2008 at 10:20 AM
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    The clearing on the bank subaccount is not based on invoice number but on payment document number (VBLNR). This document number should be copied into the payment file and should be copied by the bank into the bank statement. With this document number, the clearing is very easy. Bank statement may vary from country to country; you should say for which country you need a solution.

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    • Former Member
      Jan 18, 2008 at 10:23 AM

      I know that I should pass the payment doc. number, but one colleague of mine told me that it is by standard done with ref. field. And I am just trying to see if it is true. But I guess you are right. The solution is for Croatia.

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