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Former Member
Aug 22, 2007 at 03:02 PM

Intercompany posting ABT1N


ABT1N - Transferring assets from 1100 to 1000 company code using same chart of deprec. and using transfer vairant "1" gross method and Rev. fr. NBV Area 01 (or No revenue).

The posting I see on simulation screen is:


for 1100 company code ---

cr. asset (APC) acct = 1000

dr. accum deprec. = 400

dr. gain/loss acct = 600



for 1000 company code ---

dr. asset (APC) acct = 1000

cr. accum deprec. = 400

cr. acquisition fr affil company acct = 600


It posts 2 separate docs in 2 companies.

i also checked OBYA and we have intercompany customer and vendor accts.

Is this posting correct? Should the sending company post in gain/loss acct? Shouldn't the sending company post it in some intercompany clearing accts?

Please explain how it works after i post this transaction. Plz dont send me any links from

Thanks for the help in advance