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Former Member

Intercompany posting ABT1N

ABT1N - Transferring assets from 1100 to 1000 company code using same chart of deprec. and using transfer vairant "1" gross method and Rev. fr. NBV Area 01 (or No revenue).

The posting I see on simulation screen is:

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for 1100 company code ---

cr. asset (APC) acct = 1000

dr. accum deprec. = 400

dr. gain/loss acct = 600

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for 1000 company code ---

dr. asset (APC) acct = 1000

cr. accum deprec. = 400

cr. acquisition fr affil company acct = 600

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It posts 2 separate docs in 2 companies.

i also checked OBYA and we have intercompany customer and vendor accts.

Is this posting correct? Should the sending company post in gain/loss acct? Shouldn't the sending company post it in some intercompany clearing accts?

Please explain how it works after i post this transaction. Plz dont send me any links from help.sap.

Thanks for the help in advance

Kartik.

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5 Answers

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    Former Member
    Aug 22, 2007 at 05:18 PM

    Hi Kartik,

    To perform an actual transfer transaction instead of a retirement/acquisition transaction when transferring assets between Company Codes, do the following:

    1.) From the IMG (T code SPRO):

    Financial Accounting -> Asset Accounting -> Transactions -> Intercompany Asset Transfers -> Automatic Intercompany Asset Transfers -> Define Transfer Variants

    Create new Transfer Variant by copying variant "1" and changing the TTys for Relationship Type 1 from "230 and 153" to "350 and 360". (Hint: When defining new Transfer Variant use X, Y or Z)

    2.) Within T code AO90 choose:

    Chart of dep. -> Chart of Accounts -> Account Determination -> Balance Sheet Accounts

    For each Account Determination define both the "Contra account: Acquisition value posting" and the "Clearing acct: Acquisition from affiliated company". This defines the intercompany account that should be used to transfer the Net Book Value between Company Codes.

    Now test your new Transfer Variant in ABT1N, and see if it's what you are looking for.

    Thanks,

    Chad

    Message was edited by:

    Chad Busbee

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    • Former Member Former Member

      My email is davekartik@gmail.com. I think i might have to try subsitution rule on it describing each and every specific details of ABT1N and at the end mentioning that if it hits this gain/loss account than substitute in clearing acquisition to affil company account. Not sure if this will work but got to try it.

      Thanks,

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    Former Member
    Aug 22, 2007 at 05:35 PM

    Hi Kartik,

    Note the Acquisition Transaction type in the transfer variant then go to AO67 chech the Posting Type, u need to change that to Do not post to affiliated co.

    Hope this will solve your issue.

    Regards,

    Vijay

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    Former Member
    Aug 27, 2007 at 05:11 PM

    hello ppl,

    My problem has been solved. All i did was turned off the system error message and now i can assign Intercompany customer and vendor accts in asset acct determination and ABT1N posts to this accts and not to gain/loss accts.

    Thanks Chad for your TTYs and Transfer variant suggestions and taking your time out and helping me out. Problem was assigning Intercompany AP/AR accts to AO90.

    I also learned that this problem is caused in ECC 6.0 version as one of my friend had an upgrade to 6.0 and they ran into the same problem.

    I hope this post helps anyone who has the same problem.

    Thank you all for your help,

    Kartik.

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    Former Member
    Dec 11, 2007 at 02:05 PM

    Hi all,

    While executing ABT1N, this system gives an error and this is because I have made "Order" a mandatory field. Where can I add / assign Internal Order in ABT1N or where can I activate so this Order or CO object fields appears in ABT1N

    Warm Regards

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    Former Member
    Jan 08, 2008 at 05:47 PM

    I am having the same problem. I have set-up a Z Transfer Variant, modified the system error message for AC305 and AC306 as a warning; set-up the same GL B/S account within AO90 as both the Contra acct: Acqusitions value posting and the clearing acct: Acquisition from affiliated Company.

    When I go to ABT1N and post the transaction, if I check no revenue and use the newly created Transfer Variant, the simulation post to the Gain/loss account and not the Intercompany account, which is wrong. I want it to post to the Intercompany Acct.

    However, if I post the transaction checking NBV "01" and the SAP standard "1" transfer variant, the system post correctly to the intercompany account. My client wants to post this transaction using the no revenue specification. How can I get this to work.

    Thanks,

    Gezanne

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    • Former Member Former Member

      From the IMG (T code SPRO):

      Financial Accounting -> Asset Accounting -> Transactions -> Intercompany Asset Transfers -> Automatic Intercompany Asset Transfers -> Define Transfer Variants

      1)I have created a new Transfer Variant by copying variant "1" and changing the TTys for Relationship Type 1 from "220 and 153" to "350 and 360" to Z2 (All of the above TTys are set-up as post to affiliate – post gross)

      2.) Within T code AO90 choose:

      I have defined one B/S account for both the "Contra account: Acquisition value posting" and the "Clearing acct: Acquisition from affiliated company".

      When I test in ABT1N clicking no revenue and refer to Transfer Variant Z2, The system post the sending CoCode asset as a debit entry to the P/L account, which is configured in AO90 as the Retirement assignments as the Loss w/o revenue, Gain or Loss, and Clearing account.

      But as indicated in my original note, in ABT1N if I click NBV – 01 and use the Transfer Variant 1 (standard SAP) the simulation post to my B/A account set-up in step 2……

      So the change that you said to make – did nothing. Any ideas?????