Skip to Content
Former Member
Feb 10, 2007 at 09:07 AM

JMS message id as JMS correlation ?


I read this document: "How to Correlate JMS Messages"

My scenario is AP1 -> XI -> SAP -> XI -> AP1, because AP1 sends lots of messages at the same time, so I need to use correlation. Current plan is we want to use JMS message id. But this document only describe to use the "XI message id", not "JMS message id".

I found in sender communication channel configuration, I can use JMS message id as the XI message id. But because I have a mapping before the BPM, it means the message received by BPM is not the message received by XI.

(detail scenario is AP1 -> XI -> mapping to another message -> BPM -> AP1.)