on 11-08-2006 6:46 AM
I need to execute soap1 to rfc to soap2 scenario.
Soap1 will be my sender for rfc and rfc in turn will be sender for soap2.
By soap1 & soap2 I mean that they are different soaps.
IS there a need to use BPM?
I need help to develop this scenario.
Thanks,
Arch
hi,
If you scenario looks like that.
SOAP1 sends requests to RFC and RFC response goes to SOAP2 you need BPM. But if it looks like that your SOAP1 sends requests to RFC and RFC calls SOAP2 you don't need it.
Regards,
Wojciech
You must be a registered user to add a comment. If you've already registered, sign in. Otherwise, register and sign in.
Hi Wojciech ,
Thanks for the reply.
I am able to understand the first scenario i.e;
"SOAP1 sends requests to RFC and RFC response goes to SOAP2 you need BPM"
But i am not clear with 2nd scenario
"SOAP1 sends requests to RFC and RFC calls SOAP2 "
What exactly we mean by "RFC calls SOAP"?
Thanks,
Arch
User | Count |
---|---|
93 | |
10 | |
10 | |
9 | |
9 | |
7 | |
6 | |
5 | |
5 | |
4 |
You must be a registered user to add a comment. If you've already registered, sign in. Otherwise, register and sign in.