on 10-03-2006 9:08 PM
Hi All,
Can we do RFC->XI->JDBC->XI->RFC scenario without BPM?
In this SAP-RFC executed with SELECT and Table name
And SAP-RFC expect data from JDBC connection.
If not then what could be the expected steps of BPM?
Regards
Hi,
As suggested by Prakash,
If you want to achieve this as a Sync Scenario, then you can do this without BPM.
So your mapping will be 1) RFC Req ->JDBC Req
2) JDBC Response->RFC Response.
But if you have 2 different RFCs, and you need to achieve with single interface, then you can make use of BPM.
Hope this helps,.
Regards,
Moorthy
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Hi,
Are you talking about a Sync call. I mean are the Sender and Receiver RFC are the same. If it is a Sync step you can do without a BPM.
Like RFC will initiate the process the XI and the the data is selected from JDBC and the response is given back to RFC.
If the above is not the case you can avoide using BPM by having to separate scenarios.
1. Scenario 1 RFC --> XI --> JDBC
2. Scenario 2 JDBC --> XI --> RFC
If there are some dependencies or due to some constraints if you need to use BPM then you will have the steps like
Receiver Async(RFC)Send Sync(JDBC)Send Async(RFC)
Thanks,
Prakash
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