on 06-19-2006 11:32 AM
Hello Gurus,
I need to code Javascript but have no knowledge of it. Only very basic ones.
Question:
1. Can a function A(p1,p2) pass its p1,p2 values to function B(p3,p4) by calling functionB in functionA?
Example:
function A(p1,p2)
{
:
:
function B(p3,p4) { if p1=1 and p2=2 }
}
Please help me.
alfonso
Having a look at the follwoing doc will help you in future JS queries !!
<a href="http://www.w3schools.com/js/default.asp">JScripts</a>
Thanks
Jack
PS: Allot points if my post helped you !!!
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Nothing prevents you from calling a function from within another function in Javascript. it is a perfectly valid situation many times and so you can write code as shown
<script language="Javascript">
function a(p1,p2){
..
..
result = B(p1,p2);
..
..
}
function B(p3,p4){
...
..
}
</script>
Note: You can reward points for answers which prove helpful for you!!
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