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Nov 17, 2020 at 01:18 PM

​Does anybody ever use Serial/Batch Valuation Method?

239 Views Last edit Nov 19, 2020 at 07:16 AM 9 rev

I forgot to attach the image.

This is done now.

Hope this can encourage readers to answer me. :)

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Hello, everybody

SAP B1 introduced the Serial/Batch Valuation Method (S/BVM) since version 9.1. Previously, there were only 3 valuation methods in SAP B1: FIFO, Average and Standard Costs.

I intend using S/BVM in my company, but I don’t understand the logic of S/BVM at all. It seems so weird. I hope someone can shed some light.

In one SAP publication, I read:

The 2 main benefits of S/BVM are:

  • The cost used for an item in outbound transactions is the actual inbound cost of that specific batch.
  • Hence, profitability can be calculated for a specific batch.

Fine! But when I look at the examples given, they seem to contradict these principles.

The following example is from the How-to Guide “How to Set up and Use Serial/Batch Valuation Method in SAP Business One” – page 35

Calculating Costs for Goods Receipt PO Priced at Zero

Assume: Do not block multiple receipts for the same batch


Actually, GRPO 2 represents 10 items received at 0 price.

But whenever goods are received at a price different from the current cost, this triggers a cost recalculation.

I assume you are familiar with the calculations. I have omitted the details.

So, GRPO 2 is received at $ 0 cost, but SAP recalculates it to 10 x $2.5 = $ 25.

SAP calls the $ 25 the transaction value of the GRPO (the actual value = 0).

I really don’t understand this:

Total inbound costs = 100 + 0 = 100

Total outbound costs = 50 + 75 = 125

So, Inbound <> Outbound, which means that goods received at $100 are issued at $ 125. Weird, very weird!

The Guide explains that the difference of $25 is posted to the Price Difference A/c.

The Guide also recommends to Block multiple receipts for the same batch in order to avoid these weird results!

But why?

  • For what reason does SAP recalculate the GRPO value from 0 to 25?
  • SAP also recalculates the batch cost (the cost of the closing stock) as: Total Value of all RECEIPTS / Total Qty of all RECEIPTS.
  • Why does SAP permit goods to be received at $ 100, but issued at $ 125?
  • What objectives are SAP trying to achieve through S/BVM?

Kindly enlighten my confused mind.

Thanks

Leon

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