a common scenario that is described on the internet when it comes to asset migration is the following: You have acquired an asset in the current (fiscal) year and you want to migrate it mid-year in the current year to a new system.
The question is: Why would one migrate an asset in such a situation? If the asset has been acquired in the current year in the old system, wouldn't it be easier to simply create a new asset master data in the new system and run a depreciation run afterwards?
Why would I perform the more complex process of migrating said asset?
Thank you very much in advance!