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Mapping from Single Text field under Items to multiple fields in target

Posted on May 06, 2014 at 12:22 PM 17 Views

Hi Friends

I have a scenario where under Items(0...unbounded) there is a Text field in the source structure , for every text field that comes under item it needs to be mapped to a Address Line field like Line1, Line2, Line3 etc. up to Line10.So under first Item whatever Text comes it is mapped to first Line i.e Line1, next whatever Item comes , its Text value is mapped to Line2 and so on. Could anyone help me on this , can this be done using standard functions or do we need a udf, if we need a UDF , would really appreciate if anyone can provide code.

mapping.png (16.9 kB)
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    author's profile photo Former Member
    Former Member
    Posted on May 06, 2014 at 01:04 PM
    2

    Hi Arjun,

    You can very much do it with standard functions.

    Can I ask you something ? In your source table can you place a counter indicating row ? ( 1,2,3, ??)

    In that case it becomes straight forward. We handled similar situation like this..

    1. Changed the context of counter field in source to one level higher.

    2. Placed a check of counter

    3. Passed line to target based on condition.

    Please check if this works.

    Thanks..

    regards,

    Omkar.

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    • Hareesh Gampa Former Member
      May 06, 2014 at 01:16 PM

      Of course you can do with standard functions.... provided UDF for simplification.

      you just need to adjust constant value..

      change constant value to "0" and copyValue[0] and map it to line1

      change constant value to "1" and copyValue[1] and map it to line2

      change constant value to "2" and copyValue[2] and map it to line3 etc...

      standard.JPG (30.4 kB)
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  • author's profile photo Hareesh Gampa
    Hareesh Gampa
    Posted on May 06, 2014 at 12:53 PM
    1

    Hi Arjun -

    Can you try below mapping.. you just need to change the constant value.. 1..2.. 3..


    mapping.JPG (15.3 kB)
    udf.JPG (36.0 kB)
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  • author's profile photo Pranil Shinde
    Pranil Shinde
    Posted on May 07, 2014 at 11:10 AM
    1

    Hi Arjun,

    Check below mapping.

    Regards,

    Pranil.


    Image2.png (23.9 kB)
    Image1.png (31.2 kB)
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    • Former Member
      May 08, 2014 at 06:40 AM

      Hi Pranil , I have used your mapping and it is working great I used yours because you had given me screenshots for both the mapping as well as the result and also it is more simpler , I think Harish's solution will also work , so I am grateful to both of you. Thank you guys for such a quick solution.

  • author's profile photo Iñaki Vila
    Iñaki Vila
    Posted on May 06, 2014 at 12:43 PM
    0

    Hi Arjun,

    Have you tried with the standard function useOneAsMany?. Check this links to understand this function:

    https://help.sap.com/saphelp_nw04/helpdata/en/ef/df564b6aa24fc9ab0d685460747de5/content.htm

    Regards.

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  • author's profile photo vinay mittal
    vinay mittal
    Posted on May 07, 2014 at 09:21 AM
    0

    I think Hareesh gampa has provided the right answer to it it cant be made any simple since target fields are all different, it is really an extrememly simple mapping.

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