In one of the vendor account, my client has been booking all invoices in foreign currency (USD,EUR etc) and then was passing bank payment entry in co code currency (INR) that too through JV. As a result, the line items never got cleared during the last one year. Now if I run f-44, both invoicing and payment entries are coming in different values and therefore will cause a huge loss if I save it. However If i use FB05 and key in the forex rate (that was prevailing during the time of booking the invoice) and then process the open item, both debit and credit matches and it doesn't raises anything for loss/gain.
What I want to know is, if there's any implications of this ? will the system book any loss/gain if after clearing all the old line items, I run FAGL_FC_VAL ?