Hi SAP Consultants ,
I have a " logical query "as mentioned below :-
1.) Scenario : In a vendor return process with return Purchase Order and without outbound delivery , We created a return PO and a Goods receipt (MIGO) with movement type 161 (with ref to return PO) for the goods to be returned to the vendor.
Now my question is,
Why do we need ( logic behind the action ) to post a credit memo (with reference to the return PO via MIRO) to the vendor ???? ........here we are actually not dealing with any invoice in this scenario and its just creation of a return PO and a Goods receipt (MIGO) with movement type 161 to return the material to the vendor (whatever be the reason for return like poor quality , damaged goods etc..)
Also to add certain details regarding a Credit memo as defined by SAP - " The term credit memo always refers to credit memo from the vendor . A credit memo is used to correct the purchase order history if the quantity invoiced is too high or if a part of the quantity invoiced is returned to the vendor"
Now here , from the above definition mentioned , there must be some invoice posted against the materials stored in the plant/storage location for the credit memo to be issued to the vendor with ref to return PO via MIRO transaction ???? ....can we post a credit memo without any invoice posted previously against the items ???....
Please suggest logical conclusions to this query. Please specifically point out any logical flaw in the statements mentioned above by me with correct reasoning against it.
Looking forward to your responses.Quick responses are appreciated!!!
SAP MM Consultant